CCNA 1 Exam Networking Answers (Chapter 9)

CCNA 1 Exam Networking Answers (Chapter 9)

1. In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?
• Host B can transmit immediately since it is connected on its own cable segment.
• Host B must wait to receive a CSMA transmission from the hub, to signal its turn.
• Host B must send a request signal to Host A by transmitting an interframe gap.
• Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.

2. Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
• Network layer
• Transport layer
• Physical layer
• Application layer
• Session layer
• Data-link layer

3. Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)
• the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame.
• the maximum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame.
• the 96-bit payload padding inserted into a frame to achieve a legal frame size
• the 96-bit frame padding transmitted between frames to achieve proper synchronization
• the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame.
• the maximum interval within which a station must send another frame to avoid being considered unreachable

4. What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.)
• addressing
• error detection
• frame delimiting
• port identification
• path determination
• IP address resolution

5. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?
• The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode. <---
• The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
• The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
• The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.

6. What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose three.)
• recognizes streams of bits
• identifies the network layer protocol.
• makes the connection with the upper layers.
• identifies the source and destination applications
• insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment.
• determines the source of a transmission when multiple devices are transmitting

7. What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies?
• MAC sublayer
• Physical layer
• Logical Link Control sublayer
• Network layer

8. Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?
• A random delay is used to ensure a collision-free link.
• A random delay value for each device is assigned by the manufacturer.
• A standard delay value could not be agreed upon among networking device vendors.
• A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly matches the frame field type with the contents that frame field includes?
• header field - preamble and stop frame
• data field - network layer packet
• data field - physical addressing
• trailer field - FCS and SoF

10. Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93 and a mask of 255.255.248.0. Host A needs to communicate with a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on the destination address. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)
• Host A will change the destination IP to the IP of the nearest router and forward the packet.
• Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of its default gateway.
• A result of 172.16.225.0 will be obtained.
• Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the destination host.
• A result of 172.16.224.0 will be obtained.
• A result of 172.16.225.255 will be obtained.

11 Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?
• Collisions can decrease network performance.
• It is more complex than non-deterministic protocols.
• Deterministic media access protocols slow network performance.
• CSMA/CD LAN technologies are only available at slower speeds than other LAN technologies.

12. Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model?
• application
• physical
• transport
• internet
• data link
• network access

13. What is the primary purpose of ARP?
• translate URLs to IP addresses
• resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses
• provide dynamic IP configuration to network devices
• convert internal private addresses to external public addresses

14. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
• No collisions will occur on this link.
• Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
• The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
• The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.

15. Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)
• A packet with the destination IP of Router_B.
• A frame with the destination MAC address of Switch_A.
• A packet with the destination IP of Router_A.
• A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.

• A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.
• A frame with the destination MAC address of Server_B.

16 Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.)
• dynamically assigned
• copied into RAM during system startup
• layer 3 address
• contains a 3 byte OUI
• 6 bytes long
• 32 bits long

17. Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks? (Choose two.)
• reduction in cross-talk
• minimizing of collisions
• support for UTP cabling
• division into broadcast domains
• increase in the throughput of communications

18. What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today? (Choose two.)
• coaxial thicknet
• copper UTP
• coaxial thinnet
• optical fiber
• shielded twisted pair

19. Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
• 85
• 90
• BA
• A1
• B3
• 1C

20. After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data?
• the device involved in the collision with the lowest MAC address
• the device involved in the collision with the lowest IP address
• any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires first
• those that began transmitting at the same time

Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93, a mask of 255.255.248.0, and a default gateway of 172.16.224.1. Host A needs to send a packet to a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on its address and subnet mask. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)
jawab:
Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the host 172.16.231.78.
Host A will change the destination IP of the packet to 172.16.224.1 and forward the packet.

Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly identifies content that the frame data field may contain?
jawab:
network layer packet

CCNA 1 Exam Networking Answers (Chapter 8)

CCNA 1 Exam Networking Answers (Chapter 8)

1. Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?
• Presentation
• Transport
• Data Link
• Physical

2. An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?
• light injector
• OTDR
• TDR
• multimeter

3. Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)
• It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
• Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
• It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.
• It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.
• It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.

4. When is a straight-through cable used in a network?
• when connecting a router through the console port
• when connecting one switch to another switch
• when connecting a host to a switch
• when connecting a router to another router

5. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?
• coax cable
• rollover cable
• crossover cable
• straight-through cable

6. Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?
• electrical
• optical
• wireless
• acoustic

7. In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?
• BNC
• RJ-11

• RJ-45
• Type F

8. Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?
• generally uses LEDs as the light source
• relatively larger core with multiple light paths
• less expensive than multimode
• generally uses lasers as the light source

9. Which type of cable run is most often associated with fiber-optic cable?
• backbone cable
• horizontal cable
• patch cable
• work area cable

10. What are three measures of data transfer? (Choose three.)
• goodput
• frequency
• amplitude
• throughput
• crosstalk
• bandwidth

11. With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?
• the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire
• the use of braided wire to shield the adjacent wire pairs
• the reflection of the electrical wave back from the far end of the cable
• the collision caused by two nodes trying to use the media simultaneously

12. What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?
• create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media
• provide physical addressing to the devices
• determine the path packets take through the network
• control data access to the media

13. In LAN installations where potential electrical hazards or electromagnetic interference may be present, what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling?
• coax
• fiber
• Cat5e UTP
• Cat6 UTP
• STP

14. What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?
• Data will be forwarded to the wrong node.
• Data transmitted through that cable may experience signal loss.
• An improper signaling method will be implemented for data transmitted on that cable.
• The encoding method for data sent on that cable will change to compensate for the improper connection.

15. Which fiber connector supports full duplex Ethernet?
• Options three is right answer (kolmas)

16. What is considered a benefit of wireless as a media choice?
• more host mobility
• lower security risks
• reduced susceptibility to interference
• less impact of the surroundings on the effective coverage area

17. What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?
• the metal braiding in the shielding
• the reflective cladding around core
• the twisting of the wires in the cable
• the insulating material in the outer jacket

Refer to the exhibit. An ISP donates some decommissioned Cisco 2600 series routers to a local high school.  The high school plans to use these routers in their networking classrooms for students to practice. Which type of cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between routers RTA and RTB?
coax cable
rollover cable
——->crossover cable
straight-through cable
Which data communications standard provides broadband access in a wireless network?
GSM
Wi-Fi
——>WiMAX
Bluetooth

When is a rollover cable used in a network?

for connecting a host to a Fast Ethernet port on a switch
for connecting a router to another router
for connecting two routers through their AUX ports
jawab: for connecting to a switch through its console port

Which OSI layer is responsible for managing optical signals used for data communication?
physical

A customer installs a wireless access point at home in the closet next to the kitchen. The customer mentions that the wireless communication performance seems degraded when the cordless phone or the microwave oven is in use. What is the possible reason for this degradation?
The wireless signal is in the same radio frequency range as the household devices are in.

Which fiber connector supports full duplex Ethernet?
Option 3

Compared with UTP cable, what extra characteristic of STP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?
the metal braiding in the shielding

CCNA 1 Exam Networking Answers (Chapter 7)

CCNA 1 Exam Networking Answers (Chapter 7)

1. Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a network? (Choose three.)
• the Layer 3 protocol selected
• the geographic scope of the network
• the PDU defined by the transport layer
• the physical layer implementation
• he number of hosts to be interconnected

2. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the network in the exhibit is converged meaning the routing tables and ARP tables are complete, which MAC address will Host A place in the destination address field of Ethernet frames destined for www.server?
• 00-1c-41-ab-c0-00
• 00-0c-85-cf-65-c0
• 00-0c-85-cf-65-c1
• 00-12-3f-32-05-af
3. Which options are properties of contention-based media access for a shared media? (Choose three.)
• non-deterministic
• less overhead
• one station transmits at a time
• collisions exist
• devices must wait their turn
• token passing
4. What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?
• The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.
• Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.
• Physical signal paths are defined by Data Link layer protocols.
• Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.

5. What is true regarding media access control? (Choose three.)
• Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD
defined as placement of data frames on the media
contention-based access is also known as deterministic
802.11 utilizes CSMA/CD
• Data Link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media
controlled access contains data collisions
6. Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)
• Network usage is on a first come, first serve basis.
• Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.
• Data from a host is received by all other hosts.
• Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.
• Token passing networks have problems with high collision rates.
7. A network administrator has been asked to provide a graphic representation of exactly where the company network wiring and equipment are located in the building. What is this type of drawing?
• logical topology
• physical topology
• cable path
• wiring grid
• access topology
8. What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?
is used as a pad for data
identifies the source address
identifies the destination address
marks the end of timing information
• is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros
9. What statements are true regarding addresses found at each layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
• Layer 2 may identify devices by a physical address burned into the network card
• Layer 2 identifies the applications that are communicating
• Layer 3 represents a hierarchical addressing scheme
• Layer 4 directs communication to the proper destination network
• Layer 4 addresses are used by intermediary devices to forward data
10. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit?
• All three networks use CSMA/CA
• None of the networks require media access control.
• Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.
• Network 1 uses CSMA/CA and Network 2 uses CSMA/CD.
• Network 2 uses CSMA/CA and Network 3 uses CSMA/CD.
11. Refer to the exhibit. How many unique CRC calculations will take place as traffic routes from the PC to the laptop?
• 1
• 2
• 4
• 8
12. Refer to the exhibit. A frame is being sent from the PC to the laptop. Which source MAC and IP addresses will be included in the frame as it leaves RouterB? (Choose two.)
• source MAC - PC
• source MAC - S0/0 on RouterA
• source MAC - Fa0/1 on RouterB
• source IP - PC
• source IP - S0/0 on RouterA
• source IP - Fa0/1 of RouterB
13. Which sublayer of the data link layer prepares a signal to be transmitted at the physical layer?
• LLC
• MAC
• HDLC
• NIC
14. What two facts are true when a device is moved from one network or subnet to another? (Choose two.)
The Layer 2 address must be reassigned.
• The default gateway address should not be changed.
• The device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address.
• Applications and services will need additional port numbers assigned.
• The Layer 3 address must be reassigned to allow communications to the new network.
15. What is a function of the data link layer?
• provides the formatting of data
• provides end-to-end delivery of data between hosts
• provides delivery of data between two applications
• provides for the exchange data over a common local media

16. What is a characteristic of a logical point-to-point topology?
The nodes are physically connected.
The physical arrangement of the nodes is restricted.
• The media access control protocol can be very simple.
The data link layer protocol used over the link requires a large frame header.
17. What is a primary purpose of encapsulating packets into frames?
• provide routes across the internetwork
• format the data for presentation to the user
• facilitate the entry and exit of data on media
• identify the services to which transported data is associated
18. What is the primary purpose of the trailer in a data link layer frame?
• define the logical topology
• provide media access control
• support frame error detection
• carry routing information for the frame
19. What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)
• They are 48 binary bits in length.
• They are considered physical addresses.
• They are generally represented in hexadecimal format.
• They consist of four eight-bit octets of binary numbers.
• They are used to determine the data path through the network.
• They must be changed when an Ethernet device is added or moved within the network.

What determines the method of media access control? (Choose two.)
media sharing
logical topology

Refer to the exhibit. How many CRC calculations will take place as traffic routes from the PC to the laptop?
4

CCNA 1 Exam Networking Answers (Chapter 11)

CCNA 1 Exam Networking Answers (Chapter 11)

1. Users in the network are experiencing slow response time when doing file transfers to a remote server. What command could be issued to determine if the router has experienced any input or output errors?
• show running-config
• show startup-config
• show interfaces
• show ip route
• show version
• show memory

2. Refer to the exhibit. A technician applies the configuration in the exhibit to a clean router. To verify the configuration, the technician issues the show running-config command in the CLI session with the router. What lines should the technician expect to see in the router output from the show running-config command?
• enable password classline console 0password ccna
• enable secret ciscoenable password classline console 0password ccna
• enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0enable password classline console 0password ccna
• enable secret ciscoenable password 7 14141E0A1F17line console 0password 7 020507550A
• enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0enable password 7 14141E0A1F17line console 0password 7 020507550A

3. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator on HostA has problems accessing the FTP server. Layer three connectivity testing was successful from HostA to the S1 interface of RouterB. Which set of commands will allow the network administrator to telnet to RouterB and run debug commands?
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class

RouterB(config)# line vty 0 4

RouterB(config-if)# login
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class

RouterB(config)# line vty 0 2

RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco

RouterB(config-vty)# login
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class

RouterB(config)# line vty 0

RouterB(config-line)# password cisco

RouterB(config-line)# login
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class

RouterB(config)# line aux 0

RouterB(config-line)# password cisco

RouterB(config-line)# login
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class

RouterB(config)# line aux 0

RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco

RouterB(config-vty)# login

4. Refer to the exhibit. The output is shown for the show ip route command executed on Router A. What does the IP address 192.168.2.2 represent?
• Gateway for the 192.168.1.0 network
• Gateway for the 192.168.3.0 network
• IP assigned to the serial port on Router A
• IP assigned to the serial port on Router B

5. What command is used to change the default router name to Fontana?
• Router# name Fontana
• Router# hostname Fontana
• Router(config)# name Fontana
• Router(config)# hostname Fontana

6. The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
• Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
• Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
• Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224
• Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
• Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2

7. Refer to the exhibit. What additional command is required to allow remote access to this switch?
• NA-SW1(config-if)# no shutdown
• NA-SW1(config)# enable password password
• NA-SW1(config)# ip default-gateway address
• NA-SW1(config-if)# description description

8. When network services fail, which port is most often used to access a router for management purposes?
AUX
Ethernet
• Console
Telnet
SSH

9. A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a router to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?
• Telnet
• Console
• AUX
• SSH

10. In a Cisco router, when do changes made to the running-configuration take effect?
• after a system restart
• as the commands are entered
• when logging off the system
• when the configuration is saved to the startup-configuration

11. Refer to the exhibit. Which names correctly identify the CLI mode represented by the prompt for Switch-East4#? (Choose two.)
• line configuration mode
• user executive mode
• global configuration mode
• privileged executive mode
• interface configuration mode
• enable mode

12. Which three terms correctly define the forms of help available within the Cisco IOS? (Choose three.)
• hot keys
• context-check
• context-sensitive
• structured check
• command override
• command syntax check

13. Which combination of keys would be used at the CLI prompt to interrupt a ping or traceroute process?
• Ctrl-C
• Ctrl-P
• Ctrl-R
• Ctrl-Shift-6
• Ctrl-Z

14. Refer to the exhibit. What command will place the router into the correct mode to configure an appropriate interface to connect to a LAN?
• UBAMA# configure terminal
• UBAMA(config)# line vty 0 4
• UBAMA(config)# line console 0
• UBAMA(config)# interface Serial 0/0/0
• UBAMA(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1

15. On a Cisco router, which interface would be used to make the initial configuration?
• Console Port

16. Refer to the exhibit. A student is responsible for the IP addressing, configuration and connectivity testing of the network shown in the graphic. A ping from host B to host C results in a destination unreachable but a ping from host B to host A was successful. What two reasons could account for this failure based on the graphic and partial router output for the Dallas router? (Choose two.)
• The host A is turned off.
• The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is shutdown.
• The LAN cable is disconnected from host B.
• The S0/0/1 IP address of Dallas is improperly configured.
• The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is in a different subnet than host B.
• The clock rate is missing on the serial link between Dallas and NYC.

The connection between routers B and C has been successfully tested. However, after rebooting router C, the administrator noticed the response time between networks 10.10.3.0 and 10.10.4.0 is slower. Ping between the two routers is successful. A trace route indicates three hops from router B to router C. What else can be done to troubleshoot the problem?
--> Issue a show interfaces command on router C.

In a Cisco device, where is the IOS file stored prior to system startup?
--> Flash

Refer to the exhibit. What additional command is required to allow remote access to this switch from hosts outside the local network?
a.       NA-SW1(config-if)# no shutdown
b.      NA-SW1(config)# enable password password
c.       NA-SW1(config)# ip default-gateway address
d.      NA-SW1(config-if)# description description

Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence, the network administrator wants to check the routers configuration. From privileged EXEC mode, which of the following commands can the administrator use for this purpose? (Choose two.)

a.       show flash
b.      show NVRAM
c.       show startup-config
d.      show running-config
e.       show version

Jawaban JENI 1: Array (Score 100%)

jawaban JENI 1 : Array

1.       Apa yang diperlukan untuk pembuatan dan penganalisasian array multidimensional?

Semua dimensi harus dibuat pada waktu bersamaan.

Masing-masing dimensi harus di-final sebelum pembuatan dimensi berikutnya.

Suatu dimensi harus menghitung semua dimensi yang diciptakan sebelm selesai diinisialisasi.

semua dimensi yang diciptakan sebelum value dari dimensi berikutnya dapat diinisialisasi.

2.       statement mana yang akan menciptakan array bertipe double yang terdiri dari angka 5.2, 7.0, -2.5?

double list[ ] = { 5.2, 7.0, -2.5 };

double list[3] = { 5.2, 7.0, -2.5 };

double list = [ 5.2, 7.0, -2.5 ];

list double[3] = { 5.2, 7.0, -2.5 };

3.       Apa yang terjadi pada proses pembuatan suatu array dan objek?

array memiliki reference ke objek dengan tipe yang telah ditentukan, yang telah

diciptakan pada awal program.

4.     Apa yang menjadi output jika anda mengcompile dan menjalankan kode berikut ini:

Jwb: 0

5.     Setelah proses instantiate object, pernyataan mana yang benar mengenai panjang object array?

Panjang suatu array merupakan attribute final read only yang tidak bisa diubah

6.     Apa yang menjadi output kode diatas?

3

7.     Kode apa yang sebaiknya diletakkan setelah comment//awal loop, dimana loop tersebut akan menghasilkan element array dengan nilai I bagi object ia []?

for(int i=0; i< ia.length;i++)

8.     Mana diantara pilihan berikut ini yang merupakan tipe data index yang valid untuk mengakses anggota dari array?

Int

9.     Perhatikan kode berikut ini:

Int x = new int[25];

Setelah eksekusi, statement mana yang benar?

x[24] adalah 0

x[24] tidak didefinisikan

             x[25] adalah 0

             x[0] adalah null

x.length adalah 25

     10. Untuk menyediakan reference ke satu elemen pada array, array identifier harus

           dikombinasikan dengan?

              variable value

              primitive value

              index value

              array value

10.  Elemen apa yang ada pada indeks 3 dalam array karakter diatas?

5

IT Essentials-Windows 7: PC Hardware and Software (Version 4.1)

IT Essentials-Windows 7: PC Hardware and Software (Version 4.1)

Windows 7 - IT Essentials: PC Hardware and Software (Version 4.1) 

1
Which Windows 7 feature allows you to view the contents of the desktop by moving the mouse to the right edge of the taskbar?

• Aero Peek

2
A PC that is running the Windows 7 operating system has slowed down over a period of time and now takes a long time to launch applications and open various documents. What can be done to remedy the problem?

• Run Disk Defragmenter.

   
3
A technician has determined that a cache overflow problem is having an impact on the performance of a Windows 7 computer. How could the technician correct this problem?

• Change the environment variables stored at C:\Documents and Settings\%USERPROFILE%\Local Settings\Temp.

   
4
How is the Microsoft Assessment and Planning toolkit software used in the upgrade to Windows 7?

• It is used to assess existing computers to determine whether they can be migrated to Windows 7.

   
5
Which Windows 7 feature would an administrator use to configure a client computer to perform a CHKDSK procedure at 3:00 AM each day?

• Task Scheduler

   
6
In which folder are application files for 32-bit programs typically located on a computer that is running a 64-bit edition of Windows 7?

• C:\Program Files (x86)

7
Which feature of Windows 7 allows easy access to common tasks specific to a connected device, such as synching or checking for updates?

• Device Stage

   
8
A user downloads and uses the Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor to generate a report on a PC that is being considered for an operating system upgrade. What information would the report contain?

• recommended changes to hardware

9
After a computer is powered on, Windows 7 fails to start. What initial procedure would a technician use to deal with this failure?

• Boot from a Windows 7 installation media and access the System Restore utility.

10
A technician is planning an operating system upgrade for a user system that is currently running Windows Vista. Because the BitLocker feature embedded in the Windows Vista OS is required, there is a request that this feature be available when the new operating system is installed. Which version or versions of Windows 7 would support this feature?

• Windows 7 Ultimate

   
11
Which operating systems can be upgraded to Windows 7?

• Windows Vista

   
12
A technician is configuring a kiosk PC in the office lobby for customer use. This kiosk needs to be able to display information in English, French, and Spanish. The technician has decided to use Multilingual User Interface packs with Windows 7 to provide the capability of switching easily between languages. What is the minimum version of Windows 7 the technician can use to support this feature?

• Windows 7 Ultimate

   
13
Which statement about Windows 7 is correct?

• Windows 7 Home Premium cannot be joined to a domain.

   
14
A technician wants to deploy Windows 7 to 120 computers in an enterprise. The technician wants to use the least amount of administrative overhead in making sure that all of the computers are able to be upgraded successfully. What should the technician do to accomplish this?

• Use the Microsoft Assessment and Planning Toolkit.

15
A user notices that the Windows 7 UAC appears too often after upgrading the computer to Windows 7. What can the user do to correct this problem?

• Lower the UAC setting in the Change User Account Control settings dialog box of the User Accounts control.

16
A technician is trying to configure offline files and folders for a Windows 7 Home Premium desktop machine, but cannot get the feature to work. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

• Windows 7 Home Premium does not support offline files and folders.

   
17
A technician wants to allow users to backup and restore all the files on their computers, but does not want the users to be able to make changes to the system. How should the technician give users this functionality?

• Make the users members of a group called Backup Operators.

   
18
A technician has created a partition in preparation for a Windows 7 network installation on a PC. What additional step is required to allow the PC to connect to the file server to complete the installation?

• The technician must make the partition bootable and include a network client on the local PC.

   
19
After using a Windows 7 installation DVD to upgrade a PC from Windows Vista to Windows 7, a user finds that the DVD drive is no longer recognized. What is the probable cause of the problem?

• A registry error prevents Windows 7 from recognizing the DVD drive.

   
20
Which statement about Windows 7 is correct?

• Windows 7 Starter is only available for netbook computers.

21
A technician wishes to restart the print spooler on a Windows 7 client computer. Which Task Manager tab would provide support for this action?

• Services

22
A user on a Windows 7 Home Premium computer reports that the Aero theme does not work. What action could the technician take to resolve this issue?

• Replace the graphics card with one that meets the minimum hardware requirements for Windows 7.

23
Which two options correctly list the amount of hard drive space that is required for a Windows 7 Professional installation on 32-bit and 64-bit systems? (Choose two.)

• 20 GB of hard drive space for the 64-bit version.
• 16 GB of hard drive space for the 32-bit version.

   
24
A user notices that some of the programs that are installed before upgrading to Windows 7 no longer function properly. What can the user do to fix this problem?

• Reinstall the programs in Compatibility Mode.

25
A new Windows 7 user has used the Shake feature to effectively control the desktop. After moving to another system which also employs Windows 7, the user notices that the Shake feature does not work. What could be a possible problem?

• The computer is using Windows 7 Starter edition.

   
26
How should a hard drive be partitioned to support a Windows 7 installation over a network?

• A FAT32 partition of at least 5 GB must be created.

27
A user is trying to run a program in Windows 7, but keeps getting an error message that states that the program must be run with elevated privileges. What should the user do to allow this program to run properly without having an impact on the security of other programs?

• From the Compatibility tab of the Properties of the program, select Run This Program as an Administrator.

   
28
A Windows 7 operating system fails to boot when the system is powered on. The technician suspects that the operating system has been attacked by a virus that rendered the system inoperable. What measure could be taken to restore system functionality?

• Use a system image that was created prior to the failure to restore the system.

   
29
What does %USERPROFILE% represent in the path C:\Users\%USERPROFILE%\AppData\Local\Temp?

• an environment variable that is set by the operating system

30
A user decides to install the Windows 7 operating system on the hard drive of a PC using the default settings. The user creates a single partition using the entire space on the hard drive. What file system will the partition be formatted with during the install?

• NTFS

31
A Windows 7 computer backup that is scheduled for a specific date and time fails to start. What could be done to address this problem?

• Choose System Restore from the Systems Recovery Options and set the scheduler time.

32
A network technician is deploying Windows 7 and has been asked to ensure that all machines can join the domain, use jump lists, have location aware printing, and use BitLocker to secure data. What is the minimum version of Windows 7 that the technician can deploy to meet all these requirements?

• Windows 7 Ultimate